Abstract

What is the relationship between formal, “general” logic and transcendental logic? Is the former prior to the latter or is it the other way round? Can the one be deduced and derived from the other or based upon it? There is a widespread controversy among philosophers concerning these questions. In any case, most of them accept the assumption that one of these logics should be prior to the other. As for me, I don’t accept this assumption at all, and in this paper I attempt to show that such a priority is impossible, since the two logics are but different uses or employments of the same understanding.